Definition 3.4.1 (Martingale Problem).label Let $a: [0, \infty) \times C([0, \infty); \real^{n}) \to L(\real^{n}; \real^{n})$ and $b: [0, \infty) \times C([0, \infty); \real^{n}) \to \real^{n}$ be previsible path functionals. For each $u \in C_{c}^{\infty}(\real^{n})$, let

\[Lu = \frac{1}{2}\dpn{A, D^2f}{\real^{n \times n}}+ \dpn{b, Df}{\real^n}\]

then for any $y \in \real^{n}$, filtered probability space $(\Omega, \bracs{\cf_t|t \ge 0}, \bp)$, and $X: \Omega \to C([0, \infty); \real^{n})$, $X$ is a solution to the martingale problem for $(a, b)$ starting at $y$ if:

  1. (1)

    $X_{0} = y$ almost surely.

  2. (2)

    For each $f \in C_{c}^{\infty}(\real^{n})$, the process

    \[C_{t}^{f} = f(X_{t}) - f(X_{0}) - \int_{0}^{t} Lf(s, X_{s})ds\]

    is a $\bracs{\mathcal{F}_t}$-martinagle.

If the distribution of $X$ on $C([0, \infty); \real^{n})$ is the unique distribution satisfying the above, then the solution for the martingale problem is unique. If for each $y \in \real^{n}$, such a solution exists, then the martingale problem is well posed.